I've has a look at this thread about the tonos.
My question is...Is there any good reason to make the angle of the tonos steeper in monotonic Greek than the acute accent (especially if an acute is quite steep anyway)?
I can see the merit in making it steeper for the upper case vowels in which the tonos appears upper left aligned with the cap height but what other reason is there for making it steeper than the acute (when in law the tonos is to all intents and purposes equivalent to an acute?)
John Hudson wrote: "it tends to be steep and often taller than the Latin acute". Any reason why?
I understand that you might want a steeper tonos/oxia in polytonic where space above a letter may be at a premium but why does it always seem to be steeper than the acute in monotonic Greek where there's all the room in the world (particularly over the lower case vowels)?